Andhra Pradesh (AP) Police Constable Question Paper – 6 January 2019 (Answer Key)
Andhra Pradesh (AP) Police Constable Question Paper – 6 January 2019 (Answer Key)
Andhra Pradesh AP Police Constable Exam Paper – 6 January 2019 (Answer Key): Andhra Pradesh (AP) Police Constable exam was conducted on 6th January 2019 from 10:00 AM to 01:00 PM.
AP Police Constable Exam Paper – 2019
1. Choose the grammatically correct sentence.
(1) An afraid soldier is a silent spectacle
(2) A soldier afraid is a silent spectacle
(3) A soldier who is afraid is a silent spectacle
(4) A soldier who is afraided is a silent spectacle
Answer. – 3
2. Choose the grammatically correct sentence.
(1) Iron is useful than any metal
(2) Iron is more useful than any other metal
(3) The iron is more useful than any metals
(4) No metals is useful than the iron
Answer. – 2
3. Choose the grammatically correct sentence.
(1) In the first year of school, pupils are taught to recite the alphabet
(2) In the first year of school, peoples are taught to recite the alphabet
(3) In the first year of school, pupils are taught to recite the alphabets
(4) In the first year of school, pupils are taught to recited the alphabet
Answer. – 1
4. Choose the meaning of the underlined phrase/idiom.
John had butterflies in his stomach before he delivered the talk
(1) to feel excited
(2) to feel exhausted
(3) to feel impatient
(4) to feel nervous
Answer. – 4
5. Choose the meaning of the underlined phrase/idiom.
Many politicians try to fish in troubled waters
(1) to make use of river water disputes
(2) to take advantage of a troubled situation
(3) to take advantages of money
(4) to create trouble
Answer. – 2
6. Choose the meaning of the underlined phrase/idiom.
The young scientist’s research blazed a trial for new kinds of gene therapy
(1) found a new path
(2) followed the old path
(3) announce findings
(4) increased the expenditure
Answer. – 1
7. Choose the appropriate phrasal verb
The former prime minister ______ after a prolonged illness
(1) passed off
(2) passed into
(3) passed away
(4) passed on
Answer. – 3
8. Choose the appropriate phrasal verb
The business was _____ on account of heavy losses.
(1) pulled up
(2) closed down
(3) pulled off
(4) kicked off
Answer. – 2
9. Choose the appropriate phrasal verb
The society looks____ the losers
(1) upto
(2) into
(3) down upon
(4) look afters
Answer. – 3
10. Choose the correct passive forms of the sentence.
Someone will announce the president’s arrival to the waiting journalists.
(1) The president will announce the arrival to the waiting Journalists
(2) The president’s arrival will announce to the waiting Journalists
(3) The president’s arrival will be announced to the waiting Journalists
(4) The president’s arrival should be announced to the waiting Journalists
Answer. – 3
11. Choose the correct passive form of the sentence.
They saw the monkey climbing over the fence.
(1) The monkey was seen climbing over the fence.
(2) The monkey is seen climbing over the fence
(3) The monkey saw climbing over the fence
(4) The monkey has seen climbing over the fence
Answer. – 1
12. Choose the correct form of the verb.
By the time I picked up the phone, they _____ off
(1) had rang
(2) had rung
(3) had ringed
(4) has rang
Answer. – 2
13. Choose the correct form of the verb.
If I ______ this button, will it start to record my voice?
(1) will press
(2) had pressed
(3) press
(4) be pressed
Answer. – 3
14. Choose the correct order of the given jumbled sentence.
1. at the bus stop/ 2. I met Ravi/ 3. and saw him/ 4. at a party/ 5. a couple of days later
(1) 5, 2, 4, 1, 3
(2) 2, 5, 1,3, 4
(3) 4, 2, 5, 3, 1
(4) 2, 4, 3, 5, 1
Answer. – 4
15. Choose the correct order of the given jumbled sentences.
1. The way to / 2. whether I could/ 3. the stranger asked me / 4. the bus complex / 5. Tell him
(1) 3, 2, 5, 1, 4
(2) 1, 4, 5, 2, 3
(3) 3, 5, 2, 4, 1
(4) 3, 2, 1, 4, 5
Answer. – 1
16. Choose the correct order of the jumbled sentences.
1. a new bus service / 2. the local residents / 3. To introduce / 4. welcomed the decision / 5. from their village
(1) 1, 5, 3, 4, 2
(2) 2,1, 5, 3, 4
(3) 2, 4, 1, 3, 5
(4) 2, 4, 3, 1, 5
Answer. – 4
Read the following passage and answer the (17 to 21 Questions)
Two hundred years after Malthus predicted that population growth would overtake food production by a margin of 256 to 9, the simple fact is that food production had always been ahead of the population growth. Malthus doomsday prediction simply did not come true due to two major reasons: first, population did not grow geometrially and birth rates in all western countries fell during 20th century, resulting in very slow nonulation growth. Over the past quarter century, birth rates have been falling in the developing countries too. Second, modern agricultural practices and better irrigation have resulted in tremendous growth in food production in almost all parts of the globe, with notable exception of Sub-Saharan Africa. Therefore, at the global level, the Malthusian doomsday never befell on us.
India’s population grew by about two and a half times in the past 45 years from 361 million in 1951 to an estimated 916 million in 1995. But during the same period, India’s food grain production grew by nearly four times from 51 million tonnes in 1951 to 191 million tonnes in 1995.
17. The prediction of Malthus did not come true because
a) population did not grow geometrically
b) food production increased tremendously
c) population increased considerably
d) Agriculture became very profitable
(1) a and b
(2) a
(3) c and d
(4) a and d
Answer. – 1
18. What was India’s food grain production in 1951?
(1) 191 million tonnes
(2) 51 million tonnes
(3) 361 million tonnes
(4) Not specified
Answer. – 2
19. In the developing countries the birth rate is
(1) increasing
(2) static
(3) falling
(4) not specified
Answer. – 3
20. India’s food production between 1951 and 1995 grew nearly
(1) five times
(2) four times
(3) three times
(4) two times
Answer. – 2
21. Pick out the word from the passage which means forecast
(1) doomsday
(2) overtake
(3) prediction
(4) ratio
Answer. – 3
22. Choose the word which is similar in meaning to the underlined word in the sentences.
Non-renewable fuels such as petrol and diesel should be used judiciously.
(1) freely
(2) rarely
(3) wisely
(4) legally
Answer. – 3
23. Choose the word which is similar in meaning to the underlined word in the sentence.
It is the responsibility of everybody to save, the planet earth for Posterity.
(1) Prosperity
(2) Future generations
(3) Continuity
(4) Utility
Answer. – 3
24. Choose the antonym of the underlined word in the sentence.
Vijay lcd an extravagant life
(1) lavish
(2) spendthrift
(3) frugal
(4) radical
Answer. – 3
25. Choose the antonym of the underlined word in the sentence.
The path is made obscure by fog and darkness.
(1) frosty
(2) hazy
(3) shabby
(4) clear
Answer. – 4
26. Choose the correct spelling
(1) Commitment
(2) Committment
(3) Comittment
(4) Comitment
Answer. – 1
27. Choose the correct spelling
(1) Zymnastics
(2) Gymnestics
(3) Gymmnastics
(4) Gymnastics
Answer. – 4
28. Choose the appropriate preposition.
We had to wait at the airport for five hours _____ take-off
(1) before
(2) at
(3) along
(4) over
Answer. – 1
29. Choose the appropriate preposition.
The visit of the chief minister to Delhi has been advanced _____ two days
(1) for
(2) by
(3) over
(4) with
Answer. – 2
30. Choose the grammatically correct sentence.
(1) I am working in this company for ten years
(2) I have been working in this company for ten years
(3) I have been working in this company since ten years
(4) I am been in this company for ten years
Answer. – 2
31. In a certain code, if ‘ARITHMETIC’ is coded as ‘NEVGUZRGVP’ and ‘SET’ is coded as ‘FRG’ then, inthe same code, the codr for ‘MATHEMATICS’ is
(1) N Z G S N Z G R X H
(2) Z N G U R Z R G V P F
(3) F P V G N Z R U G N Z
(4) Z N G U R Z N G V P F
Answer. – 4
32. In a certain code ‘BLOOD’ is coded as ‘YOLLW’ and ‘SENSE’ is coded as ‘HVMHV’.
Then, in the same code, the code for ‘RELATION’ is
(1) IVOZEPLM
(2) IVOZFSLM
(3) IVOZGRLM
(4) IVOZHOLM
Answer. – 3
33. If SPEED=98 and TIME=94, then DISTANCES=
(1) 196
(2) 150
(3) 188
(4) 175
Answer. – 2
34. A person starts his journey from a point P First he moves 3km towards North from P and then turns towards East and walks 6km. Then he turns towards South and travels 12km. From there upon he moves towards East and travels 6km. Then he turns towards North to reach a point Q which is 3km away. Then, the direction from P to Q is
(1) South-East
(2) North-West
(3) North-East
(4) South-West
Answer. – 1
35. A person walks 4km towards West and turns to his left and walks 2km. Then he turns to his left, walks 1km and turns to his right, walks ½ km and then turns to his right, walks 3km and finally turns to his right and walks 1/2km. Now the direction from the starting point to the final point is
(1) South-East
(2) North-West
(3) South-West
(4) North-East
Answer. – 3
36. A man leaves his home and after moving a distance of 40mt towards West he turns North and walkd 20mt. Then he walks 70mt towards East and there after 10mt towards South. He then turns towards West and walks 30mt to reach his office. Now the nearest distance (in mt) between his home and office is
(1) 20
(2) 30
(3) 40
(4) 10
Answer. – 4
Directions: Answer questions from 37 to 39 based on the following statements
a) A has 3 sisters B, C, D and 2 brothers E, F
b) N has 1 sister O and 1 brother P
c) A married N and they got 1 daughter G and 3 sons H, I, J,
d) G has 2 sons K, L
e) H has 2 sons M, Q
f) I has 2 sons R, S
g) J has 2 daughters T, U
37. Total number of aunts of H is
(1) 1
(2) 4
(3) 3
(4) 2
Answer. – 2
38. A is related to Q a.
(1) grand mother
(2) mother
(3) Grand father
(4) either grand mother or grand father
Answer. – 4
39. J is related to K as
(1) Father
(2) Father’s brother
(3) Maternal uncle
(4) Father in law
Answer. – 3
40. In an office, ¼ of the employees are women. ⅔ of the women and ¾ of the men are married. If ¾ of the married women and 8/9 of the married men have children, then the fraction of the employees having no children among the total number of employees is
(1) ⅜
(2) ⅛
(3) ½
(4) ⅙
Answer. – 1
41. There are some benches in a classroom. If 4 students sit on each bench, then 4 benches are left unoccupied. However, if 3 students sit on each bench, then 3 students are left standing
Then the sum of the number of benches and number of students in that class room is
(1) 84
(2) 79
(3) 65
(4) 72
Answer. – 2
42. A printer alloted consecutive integers to all the pages of a book starting with 1. In this
process, the digits from 0 to 9 are used 4893 times. Then the total number of pages in that book is
(1) 1281
(2) 1224
(3) 1500
(4) 1612
Answer. – 3
43. While travelling from Hyderabad to Bangalore by a car, the driver covers ¼ of the distance
at 60 kmph, ⅓ of the distance at 80 kmph, ⅙ of the distance at 100 kmph and the remaining
distance at 50 kmph. Then his average speed for the whole journey, in kilometers per hour, is (1) 72 1/2
(2) 70 5/6
(3) 68 1/6
(4) 66 2/3
Answer. – 4
44. A person travels on his car drom a place A to a place B with an average speed of 60kmph and he is late by 30 minutes than the time he usually takes. During hus return hourney, with an average speed of 80kmph, he reached his destination 5 minutes earlier. Then the distance (in km) between A and B is
(1) 160
(2) 150
(3) 140
(4) 120
Answer. – 3
45. A person covers a certain distance at a speed of 15kruph in 10 minutes. If he wants to cover
the same distance in 6 minutes, then his speed (in kmph) is
(1) 20
(2) 25
(3) 30
(4) 24
Answer. – 2
46. A car covers a distance of 720 km in 10 hours. The speed of a train is double the speed of
the car and the speed of a bike is 4/9 of the speed of the train. Then the distance (in km)
covered by the bike in 4 hours is
(1) 256
(2) 128
(3) 512
(4) 132
Answer. – 1
Directions for the questions from 47 to 49: Each of these questions has a statement followed by two conclusions I and II. You have to decide which of the conclusions follows from the given
statement and mark your answer as
(1) if conclusion I only follows;
(2) if conclusion II only follows;
(3) if neither conclusion I nor II follows;
(4) if both conclusions I and II follow
47. Statement: Mr. A is not among the candidates shortlisted for the post of vice-chancellor of a university
Conclusions:
I) I Mr. A will be selected as Vice-chancellor.
II) Mr. A will not be considered for the post of Vice-chancellor.
Answer. – 2
48. Statement: This is the only book which focuses on the problem of Indian Economy during 2000 and 2010A.D
Conclusions:
I). There was no book on Indian Economy before 2000A.D
II). No other book deals with Indian Economy between 2000 and 2010A.D
Answer. – 2
49. Statement: Only good speakers are owledge can be a good speaker No one without good knowledge can be a good speaker
Conclusions:
I) All invited speakers for the conference have god knowledge in their topics
II) Those speakers who do not have good knowledge are not invited for the conference.
Answer. – 4
50. A right circular solid cylinder has radius 7cm and height 24cm. A conical cavity of same dimensions is carved out of the cylinder. Then the sum of the areas, in square centimeters,
of the inner and the outer surfaces of the remaining solid is
(1) 1056
(2) 1606
(3) 1760
(4) 1814
Answer. – 3
51. The radius, in centimeters, of the greatest sphere that can be carved out of a solid cone of radius 9 cm and height 40 cm, is
(1) 8.6
(2) 7.2
(3) 6.9
(4) 7.6
Answer. – 2
52. The frustum of a right circular cone has height 12cm, radius of the base 8cm and the radius
of the top 3cm. Then the ratio of the volume of the frustum to its total surface area is
(1) 97:54
(2) 2:1
(3) 82:53
(4) 3:2
Answer. – 1
53. Three cubes of metal whose edges are 3cm, 4cm and 5cm are melted to form a bigger
cube. If there is no loss of metal in this process, then the diagonal of the bigger cube, in centimeters, is
(1) 3√3
(2) 4√3
(3) 8√3
(4) 6√3
Answer. – 4
54. When each edge of a cube of cube is increased by 10%, then the increase in the total surface area of cube is
(1) 44%
(2) 21%
(3) 20%
(4) 40%
Answer. – 2
55. A vendor has fixed the rate of a vegetable at Rs.40 per kg. But he could not find buyers at this rate. So he reduced its price to Rs.35 per kg using a faulty weight of 910 gm fo 1kg. Then the actual change in the price is
(1) 4 11/13 %decrease
(2) 4 11/13 % increase
(3) 3 11/13 %decrease
(4) 3 11/13 % increase
Answer. – 4
56. An article when sold for Rs.1770 fetches 18% profit. If 18 such articles are sold for Rs.1600 each, then the profit or loss is
(1) 6 2/3% profit
(2) 8 1/3% profit
(3) 6 2/3% loss
(4) 8 1/3% loss
Answer. – 1
57. A shopkeeper purchased a chair marked.at Rs.750 at two successive discounts of 20% and Rs. 10% respectively. If he spent Rs.60 on transportation and sold the chair for Rs.700, then
his gain percentage is
(1) 25
(2) 15 ⅓
(3) 20
(4) 16 ⅔
Answer. – 4
58. A sumn of money at simple interest amounts to Rs. 24,000.in 4 years. If the rate of interest is increased by 20%, the same sum amounts to Rs. 25,800 in the same time. The original rate of interest is
(1) 18%
(2) 10%
(3) 15%
(4) 20%
Answer. –
59. The interest earned by A on a certain amount compounded at the rate of 10% per annum the end of two years is Rs. 4,410. Then the total amount that A would have got at the end of
first year, in rupees, is
(1) 25,410
(2) 23,100
(3) 21,000
(4) 24,410
Answer. – 2
60. The interest on a sum at a certain rate of interest compounded yearly for two years is Rs. 5,500. If the simple interest on the same sum, at the same rate of interest for 4 years is Rs. 10,000 then the rate of interest is
(1) 20%
(2) 25%
(3) 10%
(4) 15%
Answer. – 1
61. If ???? and β satisfy the equations 3x + 7y= 5 and 11x + 5y = 7 then 31(???? + β) =
(1) 12
(2) 29
(3) 31
(4) 1
Answer. – 2
62. If the system of equations 2x+3y=4 and 6x+9y=k has no solution, then the value (s) of
k is (are)
(1) 12
(2) all real values except 6
(3) all real values except 4
(4) all real values except 12
Answer. – 4
63. If the system of cquations 7x-y- 5=0 and ax-5y-25=0 has infinite number of solutions, then for k∈IR the general Solution (x,y) of the system is
Andhra Pradesh AP Police Constable exam question
Answer. – 3
64. If the sum of three consecutive numbers in a geometric progression is 26 and the sum of their squares is 364, then the product of those numbers is
(1) 216
(2) 125
(3) 343
(4) 512
Answer. –
65. Which of the following numbers belong to the series 5, 13, 21, 29, 37, …..
(1) 2018
(2) 2005
(3) 2010
(4) 2017
Answer. – 2
66. Andhra Pradesh AP Police Constable exam question
(1) 12 15/47
(2) 2 2/11
(3) 9 59/60
(4) 35/73
Answer. –
67. If 3 unbiased coins are tossed simultaneously, then the probability of getting at most one
head is
(1) ⅛
(2) ¼
(3) ⅜
(4) ½
Answer. – 4
68. When two unbiased dice are rolled, the probability of getting prime numbers on both the
dice is
(1) ⅙
(2) 4/9
(3) 2/9
(4) ¼
Answer. – 1
69. If a card is drawn at random from a well shuffled pack of 52 playing cards, then the probability of getting a red coloured face is
(1) 2/13
(2) 1/13
(3) 3/26
(4) 3/52
Answer. – 3
Directions for the questions Irom 70 to 75
In each of the series given in the questions from 70 to 75, there is a blank space. Find the correct option that fits in the series and mark it as your answer.
In each of these
70. 13, 17, 25, 32, 37, 47, _____
(1) 60
(2) 58
(3) 64
(4) 54
Answer. – 2
71. 52, 63, 82, 99, ___
(1) 181
(2) 110
(3) 133
(4) 151
Answer. – 1
72. 5, 10, 26, 50, ____
(1) 55
(2) 100
(3) 122
(4) 79
Answer. – 3
73. ACF, EGJ, IKN,___QSV, UWZ
(1) OQT
(2) MOR
(3) QSV
(4) NPS
Answer. – 2
74. BCE, EGK, KMQ, ____
(1) QSW
(2) QSU
(3) QTX
(4) QSV
Answer. – 1
75. ____, XUR, VQL, TMF
(1) YUQ
(2) ZXU
(3) YWT
(4) ZYX
Answer. – 4
76. In 1921 All India Khilafat conference was held at
(1) Karachi
(2) Bombay
(3) Poona
(4) Nagpur
Answer. – 1
77. Who is known as the political Guru of Subhas Chandra Bose?
(1) C. R. Das
(2) G. K. Gokhale
(3) M. K. Gandhi
(4) Devendra Nath Tagore
Answer. – 1
78. In 1908, Bala Gangadhar Tilak was imprisoned for six years and was sent to the place under
stated
(1) Madras
(2) Erravada
(3) Singapore
(4) Mandalay
Answer. – 2
79. After the conquest in A. D. 1323, Delhi Sultans renamed Warangal as,..
(1) Sultan nagar
(2) Sultanapur
(3) Sultan pattanam
(4) Sultangam
Answer. – 2
80. The word ‘Tambayadanam’ is noticed in the Buddist site at the following place
(1) Chandavaram
(2) Amaravati
(3) Bhattiprolu
(4) Kotturu
Answer. – 1
81. Kourala’ in the Alahabad pillar inscription of Samudra gupta is identified with
(1) Chilaka lake
(2) Pulicut lake
(3) Kolleru lake
(4) Kondapalli vagu
Answer. – 3
82. The physical description of Krishnadevaraya was made by whom ?
(1) Razzak
(2) Nuniz
(3) Pace
(4) Nicholodeconti
Answer. – 3
83. Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan was popularly known as
(1) Lok Nayak
(2) Frontier Gandhi
(3) Iron man
(4) Lok Bandhu
Answer. – 2
84. “A post dated cheque drawn on a failing bank” Who remarked these words about ‘Cripps mission’
(1) Gandhi
(2) Vallabhai Patel
(3) J. L. Nehru
(4) B. R. Ambedkar
Answer. – 1
85 The title “Pandit” was given to the following lady
(1) Lakshmi Bai
(2) Rama Bai
(3) Sita Bai
(4) Jijiya Bai
Answer. – 2
86. In 1780, the First news paper in India ‘The Bengal Gazette’ was started as a weekly by
(1) Lord Hastings
(2) Lord Macaulay
(3) James Augustus Hicky
(4) Thomas Munro
Answer. – 3
87. Bahamni-Vijayanagar conflict started during the period of
(1) Hari Hara Raya I
(2) Mallikarjuna Raya
(3) Deva Rayal I
(4) Virupaksha Raya
Answer. – 1
88. “All men possess the same kind of features and intellect. No body is sacred by birth” who stated thus
(1) Sir Sayyad Ahmad Khan
(2) Jyothi Rao phule
(3) Raja Ram Mohan Roy
(4) – Annie Besant
Answer. – 2
89. Ontimetta, which consists of a famous Rama temple, is located in which district of Andhra (1) Chittoor
(2) Nellore
(3) Kadapa
(4) West Godavari
Answer. – 3
90. Who is the founder of Indian Reform Association’ in 1870
(1). Raja Rammohan Roy
(2) Kesava Chandra Sen
(3) Devendranath Tagore
(4) Eswarachandra Vidya Sagar
Answer. – 2
91. Gotta Barrage was constructed across the River
(1) Vamsadhara
(2) Sarada
(3) Bahuda
(4) Nagavali
Answer. – 1
92. Generally water is used as a ‘Coolant because of its
(1) More availability
(2) Low density
(3) Low specific heat
(4) High specific heat
Answer. – 4
93. Which quantity is always negative in optical distances according to sign convention rules?
(1) focal length of a convex lens
(2) object distance
(3) radius of curvature
(4) image distance
Answer. – 3
94. The weight of 6 kg mass of a body on the surface of moon is about (for earth, g=10 in/s2).
(1) 6 N
(2) 60 N
(3) 10 N
(4) 30 N
Answer. – 3
95. When a bullet is fired in to a wooden block, which one of the following is conserved?
(1) Linear momentum
(2) Velocity
(3) Potential energy
(4) Kinetic energy
Answer. – 1
96. Which is not the characteristic of a musical note?
(1) Pitch
(2) Loudness
(3) Quality
(4) Wavelength
Answer. – 4
97. Kirchhoff’s voltage law is a consequence of
(1) Conservation of charge
(2) Conservation of energy
(3) Conservation of momentum
(4) Conservation of mass
Answer. – 2
98. The SI unit of impulse is
(1) Ns-2
(2) NS2
(3) Ns
(4) Ns-1
Answer. – 3
99. Match the following
List-I List-II
A) Pyrolusic I) Sulphicle
B) Horn silver II) Sulphate
C) Cinnabir III) Silicate
D) Gypsum IV) Oxide
V) Halide
The correct answer is
. A B C D
(1) V IV Ill I
(2) IV V I II
(3) IV II I V
(4) II III IV I
Answer. – 2
100. In India for making ornamental gold we use 22 carat gold. This is an alloy of
(1) 22 parts of gold + 2 parts of copper
(2) 19 parts of gold + 3 parts of copper
(3) 18 parts of gold + 4 parts of copper
(4) 17 parts of gold + 7 parts of copper
Answer. – 1
101. Identify thie sweet odourcd organic substance from the following
(1) Chloroform
(2) Acetaldehyde
(3) Ethyl acetate
(4) Acctic acid
Answer. – 3
102. Ethanoic acid liberates hydrogen gas when it reacts with which of the following?
(1) NaOH
(2) NaHCO3
(3) Na2CO3
(4) Na
Answer. – 4
103. The volatile metal compounds of copper, calcium, strontium are generally used in fire
works to get colours. This is because these metals have
(1) low ionisation enthalpics
(2) high ionisation enthalpies
(3) high clectronegativity values
(4) High clectron gain enthalpies
Answer. – 1
104. What is the annount of hydrochloric acid present in its aqueous solution having PH=2 in gL-1? (molar mass of hydrochloric acid=36.5g mol-1)
(1) 3.65
(2) 7.30
(3) 0.365
(4) 0.730
Answer. – 3
105. From the list of metals furnished here under, the number of metals which can react with
both acids and bases is
I) Aluminium
II) Zinc
III) Beryllium
IV) Iron
V) Calcium
(1) 2
(2) 1
(3) 3
(4) 4
Answer. – 4
106. What are the gascous products liberated at anode, and cathode respectively when dilute
aqucous solution of sulphuric acid is electrolysed ?
(1) SO2, H2
(2) H2, SO2
(3) H2, O2
(4) O2, H2
Answer. – 4
107. Identify the correct statements related to Z-scheme of light reaction
I) Transfer of electrons start from PSII
II) The electrons passed down the chain to PSII again
III) The electrons reaches finally downhill to NADP+
IV. The electron carriers are not placed in a sequence on a redox potential scale
(1) I,II
(2) III, IV
(3) I, III
(4) II, III
Answer. – 3
108. Name the final compound and its total number of carbon atoms in Glycolysis of respiration
(1) Phosphoglyceric acid-3C
(2) Oxaloacetic acid -4C
(3) Pyruvic acid-3C
(4) Malic acid – 4C
Answer. – 3
109. Match the following
List-I List-II
A) Frankia I) Transpiration
B) K+ pump theory II) Imbibition
C) Translocation III) Alnus
D) Solid colloids IV) Bulk movement
The correct answer is
. A B C D
(1) II III IV I
(2) III I IV II
(3) I IV III I
(4) IV III II I
Answer. – 2
110. Characters of garden pea plant selected by Mendel for hybridization experiments from the
following
I) Colour of the flower
II) Colour of the pod
III) – Shape of the leaf
IV) Position of the leaf
(1) I, II
(2) II, III
(3) III, IV
(4) II, IV
Answer. – 1
111. Choose the correct combinations from the following
I) Auxin – Differentiation of shoots and roots
II) Gibbercllins – Opening of stomata
III) Cytokinins – Delaying the aging in leaves
IV) ABA – Seed dormancy
(1) I, II, III
(2) I, III, IV
(3) II, II, IV
(4) I, II, IV
Answer. – 2
112. Identify incorrect pair regarding ecology
I) Tropical rain forests – Base of mountains
II) Niche – Special position of the food chain
III). Biomass – Living material that can be converted into energy
IV) Biological control – Predator of parasite of the crop
(1) I, III
(2) I, IV
(3) II, III
(4) II, IV
Answer. – 2
113. In plant reproduction, fusion of the second male gainete with secondary nucleus forms
this structure with this nuclear condition
(1) Nucellus – 3n
(2) Zygote-2n
(3) Perisperm – 2n
(4) Endosperm-3n
Answer. – 4
114. Choose correct pairs from the following:
I) Bentham – Introduction of binominal nomenclature
II) National Botanical Garden – Kolkata
III) Malus malus -Tautonomy
IV) Identification – Floras
(1) I, IV
(2) II, III
(3) I, III
(4) III, IV
Answer. – 2
115. Study the following table and identify the correct combinations
Andhra Pradesh AP Police Constable exam question
(1) I, II
(2) II, III
(3) I, IV
(4) III, IV
Answer. – 3
116. Assertion (A): Food does not enter the trachea during swallowing
Reason (R): Glottis is guarded by epiglottis
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true. (R) is correct explanation for (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true. (R) is not correct explanation for (A)
(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true
Answer. – 1
117. Total lung capacity of human beings is
(1) 1200ml
(2) 3000ml
(3) 500ml
(4) 5800ml
Answer. – 3
118. Course of blood circulation in human heart is
(1) Left atrium → Right ventricle → Left ventricle → Right atrium
(2) Left ventricle → Left atrium → Lungs → Right atrium → Right ventricle
(3) Right arriurn → Right ventricle → Lungs → Left atrium → Left ventricle
(4) Left atrium → Left ventricle → Lungs → Right atrium → Right ventricle
Answer. – 3
119. Human sweat contains
(1) Citric acid
(2) Ascorbic acid
(3) Lactic acid
(4) Pyruvic acid
Answer. – 3
120. In catalytic converters, the following element is not used
(1) Palladium
(2) Sodium
(3) Platinum
(4) Rhodium
Answer. – 3
121. First menstruation in female human beings
(1) Menopause
(2) Menarche
(3) Diapause
(4) Andropause
Answer. – 2
122. Who was the first speaker of Andhra state?
(1) Koka Subba Rao
(2) Pattabhi Sita Ramayya
(3) Madapati Hanumanth Rao
(4) Ayyadevara Kaleswara Rao
Answer. – 4
123. Who was the Bengali leader thatpropagated the”Vandemnataram Movcinent’ in Andhra
(1) Bipin Chandrapal
(2) Surendranath Benarjee
(3) Aravinda Ghosh
(4) Bala Gangadhar Tilak
Answer. – 1
124. ‘India is not one but two Nations’ who said it?
(1) Mohammad AliJinnah
(2) Mohammad Iqbal
(3) SayyadAhmadKhan
(4) MoulanaAbul Kalain
Answer. – 1
125. What was the number of the Princely States in India at the time of partition?
(1) 555
(2) 558
(3) 562
(4) 560
Answer. – 3
126. When was the ‘Cabinet Mission Plan’ announced by Attlee, the Prime minister of England
(1) 1942
(2) 1946
(3) 1943
(4) 1944
Answer. – 2
127. Who was the first president of the Congress Khilafat Swarajya Party
(1) Chittaranjan Das
(2) Motilal Nehru
(3) Dr. Ansari
(4) J. L. Nehru
Answer. – 1
128. ‘Brihat Katha’ was written in the following language
(1) Sanskrit
(2) Prakrit
(3) Paisachi
(4) Pali
Answer. – 3
129. Tranakairo, the Maharathi chici wa Maharathi chief was the father of the following queen
(1) Gowtami Putra Bala Sri
(2) Lilavathi
(3) Rudradamanika
(4) Naganika
Answer. – 4
130. Which is not a correct match in the following
(1) Belgaon session – 1924
(2) Calcutta session – 1927
(3) Haripura session – 1938
(4) Meerut session – 1946
Answer. – 2
131. The book ‘India Divided‘ was written by
(1) M. N. Roy
(2) Aurobindo Ghosh
(3) M.A. Jinnah
(4) Rajendra Prasad
Answer. – 4
132. The viceroy that was assassinated in India was
(1) Lord Hardinge
(2) Lord Northbrook
(3) Lord Mayo
(4) Lord Minto
Answer. – 3
133. Rani Gaidinliu the fearless freedom fighter, born at
(1) Mizoram
(2) Nagaland
(3) Assam
(4) Manipur
Answer. – 2
134. Who said, “We will not achieve any success in our labours if we croak once a year like a frog”
(1) B.C. Pal
(2) Sardar Patel
(3) Lala Lajpat Rai
(4) B.G. Tilak
Answer. – 4
135. “Rashtriya Swayamsewak Sangh” was founded in the year
(1) 1922
(2) 1923
(3) 1925
(4) 1926
Answer. – 3
136. The title “Sarvasiddhi’ was borne by whom
(1) Kubja Vishnuvardhana
(2) Gunaga Vijayaditya
(3) Virapurushadatta . .
(4) Hastivarma
Answer. – 1
137. The temple at Draksharama was constructed during the period of the following ruler
(1) Jaya simha I
(2) Saktivarma
(3) Vijayaditya I
(4) Chalukya Bhima
Answer. – 4
138. To whom does the credit of destroying pindaris
(1) Lord Hastings
(2) Lord IHardings
(3) Lord Clive
(4) Lord Curzon
Answer. – 1
139. Sangamayya guha is located in which district.
(1) Vizianagaram
(2) Srikakulum
(3) Kumool
(4) Prakasam
Answer. – 2
140. Bhiravakona Temples belong to the following religion
(1) Vaishnavism
(2) Saktism
(3) Saivism
(4) Jainism
Answer. – 3
141. In which state of India Dogri language is spoken
(1) Sikkim
(2) Arunachal Pradesh
(3) Jammu, Kashmir
(4) Himachal Pradesh
Answer. – 3
142. The Proportional Representation by means of Single Transferable Vote System is used in
the election of
(1) Lok Sabha members
(2) Vice President of India
(3) State Legislative Assembly members
(4) Speaker of Lok Sabha
Answer. – 2
143. The Indian Constitution does not prescribe reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes and
Scheduled Tribes in
(1) Lok Sabha
(2) Legislative Assembly of a State
(3) Panchayat Bodies
(4) Rajya Sabha
Answer. – 4
144. The Constitutional Amendment Act that increased the seats of Lok Sabha from 525 to 545
(1) 31st Amendment Act, 1973
(2) 32nd Amendment Act, 1974
(3) 36th Amendment Act, 1975
(4) 39th Amendment Act, 1975
Answer. – 1
145. Secret Ballot System is not followed in the clection of
(1) Members of Lok Sabha
(2) Members of State Legislative Assembly
(3) Members of Rajya Sabha
(4) Panchayat Sarpanch
Answer. – 3
146. The 52nd Constitutional Amendment Act related to Anti-Dcfection was enacted in the year
(1) 1980
(2) 1985
(3) 1989
(4) 1991
Answer. – 2
147. The General Elections of Lok sabha in which the Indian citizens above 18 years of age have exercised their vote for the first time in the year
(1) 1984
(2) 1996
(3) 1991
(4) 1989
Answer. – 4
148. Identify the incorrect statement
(1) Direct Democracy is found in India
(2) India has Federal System of Government
(3) India is a Republic
(4) India is a SecularState
Answer. – 1
149. The new Fundamental Right that was incorporated by the 97th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2011
(1) Right to Education
(2) Right to practice any profession
(3) Right to carry on any trade
(4) Right to form Cooperative Societies
Answer. – 4
150. At present the number of Fundamental Duties in the Indian Constitution
(1) 8
(2) 10
(3) 11
(4) 12
Answer. – 3
151. To Promote International Peace and Amity is found in this part of Indian Constitution
(1) Part-III
(2) Part – IV
(3) Part-IV A
(4) Part – V
Answer. – 2
152. The writ that is issued to secure the release of a person under illegal detention
(1) Habeus corpus
(2) Mandamus
(3) Quo-warranto
(4) Certiorari
Answer. – 1
153. What is meant by National income?
(1) Income of the Government
(2) Budget of the Government
(3) Sum total of factor incomes
(4) Profits of the public sector units
Answer. – 3
154. What is meant by Mixed Economy?
(1) Co-existence of Labor intensive and Capital intensive industries
(2) Co-existence of Small and Large scale industries
(3) Co-existence of National and Foreign companies
(4) Co-existence of Public and Private sectors
Answer. – 4
155. In which year the National Rural Health Mission (NRHM) was launched in India?
(1) 2000
(2) 2005
(3) 2007
(4) 2010
Answer. – 2
156. Which sector contributes the largest share to National Income in India in the 21st Century? (1) Agriculture sector
(2) Industrial sector
(3) Service sector
(4) Foreign sector
Answer. – 3
157. The Iron and Steel Industry at Rourkela was setup with which country’s financial aid?
(1) Soviet Russia
(2) Japan
(3) France
(4) West Germany
Answer. – 4
158. What are the invisible items in the ‘Balance of Payments’ Account?
(1) Goods transactions
(2) Service transactions
(3) Physical transactions
(4) Unilateral transactions
Answer. – 2
159. Which of the following is not a Direct tax?
(1) Customs duty
(2) Corporate tax
(3) Gift tax
(4) Income tax
Answer. – 1
160. EXIM Bank deals with the issue of financial assistance relating to which one of the
Following?
(1) Foreign Trade
(2) Dornestic Trade
(3) Agriculture Development
(4) Industrial Development
Answer. – 1
161. According to 2011 census, what are the three Districts recorded the highest female literary
rate in the order in Andhra Pradesh after bifurcation?
(1) West Godavari, Krishna, East godavari
(2) West Godavari, East Godavari, Krishna
(3) East Godavari, West Godavari, Krishna
(4) Krishna, East Godavari, West Godavari
Answer. – 1
162. Which one of the following denotes the size of an operational holding in Indian agriculture?
(1) Owned land
(2) Owned land + leased-in-land
(3) Owned land + leased-in-land – leased-out-land
(4) Owned land – leased-out-land
Answer. – 2
163. Highest temperature is recorded on the surface of this planet in the solar system
(1) Earth
(2) Venus
(3) Mars
(4) Jupiter
Answer. – 2
164. On the day on which the sun’s vertical rays fall on the tropic of cancer, the duration of
‘daytime’ on the North Pole would be:
(1) 06:00 hrs
(2) 12:00 hrs
(3) 18:00 hrs
(4) 24:00 hrs
Answer. – 4
165. Teak wood trees grow in the following type of forests
(1) Temperate forests
(2) Tropical Deciduous forests
(3) Dry deciduous forests
(4) Beach forests
Answer. – 3
166. This district in Andhra Pradesh receives maximum rainfall froni the North-East Monsoon
(1) East Godavari District
(2) Krishna District
(3) Prakasam District
(4) Nellore District
Answer. – 4
167. The natural vegetation in Andhra Pradesh largely belongs to:
(1) Moist-deciduous forests
(2) Dry-deciduous forests
(3) Mangrove forests
(4) Dry-Evergreen forests
Answer. – 2
168. This state has the largest number of National Parks in India:
(1) Uttar Pradesh
(2) Madhya Pradesh
(3) Rajasthan
(4) Jammu and Kashmir
Answer. – 2
169. The Penna is flowing in these districts. Find out the wrong answer if any
(1) Ananthapuramu
(2) Nellore
(3) Kadapa
(4) Chitoor
Answer. – 4
170. This is the longest irrigation cauncil in India:
(1) Indira gandhi canal
(2) Buckingham canal
(3) Agra canal
(4) Conally canal
Answer. – 1
171. Match the following
List-I List-II
A) Rice I) Uttar Pradesh
B) Coconuts II) Karnataka
C) Sorghum III) West Bengal
D) Wheat IV) Kerala
(1) A-III B-IV C-II D-I
(2) A-IV B-III C-II D-I
(3) A-IV B-I C-II D-III
(4) A-I B-II C-III D-IV
Answer. – 1
172. In Andhra Pradesh, this is the longest state highway
(1) SH-19
(2) SH-29
(3) SH-31
(4) SH-9
Answer. – 3
173. The first Secrctary-Gencral of UNO, Trygve Lic belongs to this country
(1) Sweden
(2) Norway
(3) Myanmar
(4) Austria
Answer. – 2
174. The year in which the Panchayat Raj System was introduced in the state of Andhra Pradesh
(1) 1957
(2) 1958
(3) 1961
(4) 1959
Answer. – 4
175. The Schedule in the Indian Constitution that contains provisions relating to Municipal Bodies
(1) 12th Schedule
(2) 9th Schedule
(3) 11th Schedule
(4) 10th Schedule
Answer. – 1
176. Match the days with their theme of the year 2018.
a) World Earth day i) #Time Is Now
b) World Red Cross day ii) End Plastic Pollution
c) International Women’s day iii) Memorable Smiles from Around the World
d) World Day against Child Labour iv) Generation Safe & Healthy 2018
(1) a-iv, b-ii, c-iii, d-i
(2) a-ii, b-iv, c-i, d-iii
(3) a-ii, b-iv, c-iii, d-i
(4) a-ii, b-iii, c-i, d-iv
Answer. – 2
177. True about BRICS
a) 10th BRICS summit was held in Johannesburg
b) The member countries are from the continents of Africa, Asia, America and Europe
c). South Africa is the 5th country to join (BRICS) in this Association
d) ‘B’ stands for Bharat BRICS
(1) a, b, c
(2) b, c, d
(3) b, c
(4) a, b, c, d
Answer. – 1
178. JIMEX-18 is a
(1) 3rd edition of Japan-India Maritime exercise
(2) Jewellery exhibition at Pragathi Maidan grounds January 2018
(3) Joint military operation of India-Veitnam
(4) Joint maritime exercise of India-USA, JIMEX-18
Answer. – 1
179. SECMOL is a
(1) Organisation started by Sonam WangChuk
(2) Government of India program for children of social & economically backward
(3) UN program for social justice
(4) Joint military operation of Russia and China
Answer. – 1
180. The importance of 21st October 2018 is
(1) 75th anniversary of the formation of Netaji’s Azad Hind Sarkar
(2) Centenary birth anniversary of Karl Marx
(3) Completion of 150 years for Swamy Vivekanandas specch in Chicago religious parliament
(4) Centenary birth anniversary of Subhas Chandra Bose
Answer. – 1
181. ‘Lion Air’ airlines belongs to
(1) Sri Lanka
(2) Indonesia
(3) Singapore
(4) Malaysia Lion Air
Answer. – 2
182. In India, vigilence awareness week observed every year during the week
(1) First week of October (1-7, Oct)
(2) Last week of October (25-31, Oct)
(3) Last week of November (24-30, Nov)
(4) The week in which birthday of Sardar Vallabliai Patel falls
Answer. – 4
183. The Swedish Academy has postponed the Nobel literature prize 2018 due to
(1) Lack of funds
(2) Tcrrorist activitics
(3) #me too scandal
(4) Political unrest
Answer. – 3
184. Anil swarup committee is appointed for recommandations to strengthen the following
a) Scouts
b) NSS
c) NCC
(1) a and b
(2) a and c
(3) b and c
(4) a, b and c
Answer. – 3
185. Who led the Western Ghats Ecology Expert Panel formed by Indian Government for
recommendations of preserving the western Ghats
(1) Madhav Gadgil
(2) Ranga Rajan
(3) Madhav Nayar
(4) Sundarlal Bahuguna
Answer. – 1
186. Annapurna milk scheme is
a) to give milk to children studying upto 8th class in Government schools and madrsas across the state
b) a state sponsored programme of Rajasthan State Government
c) a Akshaya pathra sponsored programme
d) a joint sponsored programme of Government of Rajasthan & Akshaya Pathra
(1) a &c only
(2) a & d only
(3) a & b only
(4) a only
Answer. – 3
187. Match the following:
a) Assam State, Sports ambassador i) M.S. Dhoni
b) Road safety compaign ambassador ii) Akshay Kumar
c) BSNL brand ambassador iii) P.V. Sindu
d) CRPF ambassador iv) Himadas
v) Mary Kom
(1) a-iv, b-ii, c-iii, d-i
(2) a-i, b-iv, c-v, d-iii
(3) a-iv, b-ii, C-v, d-iii
(4) a-iv, b-i, c-ii, d-iii
Answer. – 3
188. Expand COMCASA
(1) Cominon Wealth Communications and Security Agreement
(2) Communications Compatibility and Security Agreement
(3) Common Wealth Compatibility and Services Agency
(4) Communications Compatibility and Service Agency
Answer. – 2
189. In 90th Annual Academy Awards – 2018, the best film in foreign language category was
(1) Shape of water
(2) A Fantasticwomen
(3) Darkest hour
(4) Village rock stars
Answer. – 2
190. “Seva BhojYojna’aims to reiimburse The Central Government share of GST to,
(1) Charitable Religious Institutions
(2) Sports Institutions
(3) Educational Institutions
(4) Voluntary Organisations
Answer. – 1
191. Match the following books with Authors
a) The Emergency, Indian Democracy’s Darkest Hour i) Kapil Sibal
b) Shades of Truth ii) S. Jaipal Reddy
c) Moving on, Moving Forward-A Year in Office iii) A. Surya Prakash
d) Ten Ideologies: The Great Asymmetry between Agrarianism and Industrialism iv) M. Venkayya Naidu
(1) a-iv b-iii c-i d-ii
(2) a-ii b-i c-iv d-iii
(3) a-iii b-iv c-ii d-i
(4) a-iii b-i c-iv d-ii
Answer. – 4
192. Cyclone-30 is a
(1) Cyclone alarming centre
(2) Deadly cyclone that effected Bangladesh
(3) Particle accelarator, that produces radio isotopes
(4) Nuclear Reactor newly established in Kalpakkam with the help of Japan technological support
Answer. – 3
193. Mascot of2018 Asian games
a). Atung b) Bhin bhine c) Khakha d) Borobi
(1) a, b and c only
(2) b only
(3) c and d only
(4) a, b, c and d
Answer. – 1
194. In August 2018 which country proposed FAO to declare 2019 as ‘International year of
Millets’
(1) Pakistan
(2) Bangladesh
(3) India
(4) USA
Answer. – 3
195. Andhra Pradesh chief minister Sri N.Chandrababu Naidu was a recipient of2018 Global
Agricultural leadership award, in the category of
(1) Media Leadership
(2) Industry Leadership
(3) Technology Leadership
(4) Policy Leadership 2018
Answer. – 4
196. The following person was appointed as the chief justice of Uttarakhand high court in
October 2018
(1) Justice Naresh Harishchandra Patil
(2) Justice Ajikuttira Somayya Bopanna
(3) Justice Ramesh Ranganathan
(4) Justice Debasishkar Guptha
Answer. – 3
197. According to the Rankings given by the Department of Industrial Policy and Promotion
(DIPP) in July 2018. The following states stood first and second positions in “Ease of doing Business”, respectively
(1) Telangana and Andhra pradesh
(2) Hariyana and Telangana
(3) Jarkhand and Hariyana
(4) Andhra Pradesh and Telangana
Answer. – 4
198. Winners of the 2018 UN Human rights prize
a) Asma Jahangir b) Rebeca Gyumi
c) Joenia Wapichana d) Front line Defenders
(1) a only
(2) a, b and c only
(3) c and d only
(4) a, b, c and d
Answer. – 3
199. Expand KISG
(1) Khelo International School Games
(2) Khelo Indoor School Games
(3) Khelo India School Games
(4) Khelo Inter School Games
Answer. – 3
200. The name of the Thai foot ball team which was trapped in a cave in June 2018
(1) Wild Alligators
(2) Wild Sharks
(3) Wild Leopards
(4) Wild Boars
Answer. – 4
इस पोस्ट में आपको AP Police Constable Question Paper on 6th January 2019 Answer Key Andhra Pradesh Police Constable Exam Paper – 6 January 2019 AP Police Constable answer key 2019 AP Police Constable Answer Key 2019 AP Police Constable Prelims Answer Key 2019 के बारे के बारे में बताया गया है इस अलावा आपका कोई भी सवाल या सुझाव है तो नीचे कमेंट करके जरुर पूछे.
